What is the definition of monetary infidelity between a husband and wife?

In 2000 I inherited a $250,000 ranch home from my Grandmother, free and clear, no mortgage, here are the keys, just pay the taxes and utilities, OK..... to make a long story short, I married my husband 1 year before. We took a home equity loan to update the kitchen. I had to sign loan papers because I was the sole deed holder. Here comes "my bad", I had no idea and it was never explained to me that somewhere in the loan doents I was "putting him on the deed as a co-owner of my family home. At this point it gets complicated, as he had a federal government job as a letter carrier with a gross income of $60,000 a year. He also had a failed back surgery and became addicted to pain killers. Here comes the ugly part... he was unable to go to his $60,0000 a yr job because he began to abuse said pain killers in a way that rendered him bed ridden as a result of withdraw from eating them like candy. He continued to take loans on the home, as now he had carte blanche, and wanted only to abuse drugs and withdraw, consequently taking loans that would pay the bills while he was in an active addiction. He used my family home as his personal ATM. There were times we were cold, hungry, and desperate. My home is now in foreclosure and we have until Feb 22 for the sheriffs sale. My question is.. what rights do I have in so far as proving monetary infidelity and should I seek legal advice or is it all just a wash?